Posted by sjb on April 14, 2004, at 9:16:17
I am wondering if I am overreacting in my difficulties in coming to term with a short period of fondling by my brother-in-law when I was 17. I am 44 now and have just recently told some of my family members about it and didn't even bring it up in therapy for many years.
I've harbored much guilt and shame, believing it was my fault as he (brother-in-law) is such an admired and respected individual within my family and the community.
I've posted before on this but today one of my sisters who I confided in about this a few years ago (not the wife of the brother-in-law who did it) was telling me about a trial she was on regarding sexual abuse. She was telling me stuff that she thought would be new to me, like, it often takes the victim a long time to come forward, victims often have troubles in relationships, psychological problems, etc. Hello????? Ok, the case she was on was much worse than what I went through because the victim was younger, the abuse came from her mother's lover (a lesbian) and there was penetration. But, why does my family think what happened to me doesn't count? I mean I don't expect them to do anything but support me, but her telling me about this trial like I was someone totally unfamiliar with the topic blew me away. I'm rambling here, but I guess my main question remains. If a someone is fondled in their private areas without their consent, is it still considered sexual abuse????
poster:sjb
thread:336255
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20040409/msgs/336255.html