Posted by SLS on May 24, 2003, at 12:14:29
In reply to Re: abilify/trileptal/zoloft » SLS, posted by Ritch on May 24, 2003, at 11:24:27
> > me-semantics
> > >
> > > hmm... i don't understand why affinity = antagonist
> > > please explain
> >
> > affinity: The force attracting atoms to each other and binding them together in a molecule
> >
> > Affinity is how powerful the "stickiness" is between the ligand molecule (natural neurotransmitter or drug) and the receptor on the surface of the cell. This property is independent of whether the molecule is an agonist, antagonist, or inverse agonist.
> >
> > Agonist=stimulates receptor to perform a function
> >
> > Antagonist=blocks receptor to prevent it from performing its function
> >
> > Inverse agonist=alters the receptor to perform the opposite of its intended function
> >
> >
> > I hope this helps.
> >
> >
> > - Scott
>
>
> Scott- what about a "partial agonist"? I know buspirone is supposed to be a partial agonist at 5-HT1a receptors, so is there anything specific or particular about partial agonism? I'm not into the receptor thing very heavy, so I need some help here. thanks in advance-Mitch
Hi Mitch.A partial agonist binds to a receptor just as does an agonist or antagonist. However, it does not always stimulate the receptor into action. I would guess that it probably depends on which of the alternating states (conformations) the molecules exist as they switch back and forth between their different three dimensional arrangements. I'm not sure though.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:227600
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030520/msgs/228848.html