Posted by Lou Pilder on February 24, 2005, at 13:54:09
In reply to Lou's reminder to Dr. Hsiung-dancgstr-dismis?, posted by Lou Pilder on February 24, 2005, at 7:44:11
> Dr. Hsiung, In accordance with your procedure to remind you after 2 days of a request from me to you that you have not addressed to me as of yet, the following .
> In this thread, I had requested a determination from you as to the acceptability of the use of the idiom,[...Please, please take anything dancingstar says with a grain of salt...] as written by a poster about what dancing star wrote here.
> One poster wrote in the thread that they thought that the meaning of the idiom was to {not take seriously} what was said, in this case by dancingstar. Could that have the potential, in your thinking, to also mean that the use of the idiom could also mean that the person that wrote the idiom was in some way encouraging one to {dismiss} what dancingstar wrote and if so, is that acceptable here to write such about what another poster wrote here? If you have addressed my requst to you about the use of the idiom toward dancingstar, could you post to me the URL?
> Lou Pilder
> http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20050219/msgs/461232.htmlDr. Hsiung,
In the above, the statement by the poster about what dancingstar writes here is,{...Please,please take {anything} that dancingstar says with a grain of salt...].
I have put myself in dancingstar's shoes and when I read that statement by replacing my name with dancingstar, I see,[...Please, please take [anything} that Lou says with a grain of salt...].
Now the idiom, [...with a grain of salt...] has historical meanings of which have the potential,IMO, to encorage others to {dismiss} what a person says, or to be skeptical about what a person says, or other similar conotations. Could not the idiom then have the potential to be defaming to the one whose words or writings are being told to others to be taken with a grain of salt? Could not the idiom have the potential to be a personal attack on the person that the idiom was directed to?
In the case in question, the poster writes, {Please,please}...with a grain of salt. Is that not gramattically having the potential for some others to consider that to be a kind of imparitive? And the statement goes on to include {anything} that the poster that the idiom is directed to be {taken with a grain of salt}. Not just a spacific statement, but {anything} that ,in this case, dancingstar, says. That could be in the future, or the past also.
I am requesting this determination as to the acceptability or not here in the case involving dancingstar because I feel hurt by the statement in question because I feel that the statement has the potential, IMO, to hurt one that has the statement directed to what they wrote here. Could not the policy here about being sensitive to others feelings encompass the statement directed toward what dancingstar writes? And is the statement not putting down dancingstar by writing, [...Pleae, please take {anything} that dancingstar says with a grain of salt...]? And does that statement directed to what dancingstar writes here have the potential to be considered to fall in the catagory of [...please respect the views of others...] because the poster posts an idiom that has the potential, IMO, to be considered by some to advocate that one not give credance to what the person that the idiom is directed to writes
Lou Pilder
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:462587
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20050219/msgs/462748.html