Posted by laurah952 on June 27, 2013, at 14:02:32
Hi everyone,
Sorry for posting this 2x. I wanted to start a new thread for this as it is so important to me.
After talking with a new pdoc (my own) - we spent a good deal of time talking about Taylor. (14yo daughter)
Although we saw what seemed to be MDD at first, this pdoc stated that she's is most likely bi-polar and not suffering with MDD. So, not unipolar, rather bi-polar. She based her "diagnosis" on the fact that mood swings have been severe, along with many other classic bi-polar symptoms.
She thinks it should be treated only with bi-polar meds (non-psychotropic if possible) only. I guess that would mean that Zoloft would not be helping much? (That the only real help she had was the Seroquel)
My daughter still has her own appt. there, but not for a while. In the meantime, do you think the Zoloft is a bad idea? (I could up Seroquel a bit, and down the Zoloft to 50mg, for a start) The pdoc she was seeing, told me to "do whatever I wanted".
Thanks in advance for any help/opinions,
Laura
poster:laurah952
thread:1045977
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20130617/msgs/1045977.html