Posted by Molybdenum on May 15, 2008, at 18:55:11
In reply to Re: modafinil and armodafinil, how do they differ? » cactus, posted by Larry Hoover on May 11, 2008, at 20:05:48
Dear Larry,
Since I've read your very interesting posts, I came across the following article. I'm not convinced the author is completely sane, but it's got me thinking about some matters related to the content and I'd very much love to hear your opinions.
http://www.wipo.int/pctdb/en/wo.jsp?IA=WO2007013962&DISPLAY=DESC
So basically, the author believes that the "d-modafinil" (dextrorotatory enantiomer) and "1-modafinil" (levorotatory enantiomer) have active yet differing half lives. I can't understand why s/he thinks that idea is patentable, but that's not my query.
I know that the name brand modafinil (Profigil, Modavigil here) is said to me racemic. As it's too expensive for me, I have been buying it from India & Bosnia. My question then is: is it possible that a modern factory that is trying to cut costs to compete in the generic market, could in fact be accidentally producing a non-racemic modafinil? If they are trying to cut corners here & there, could they unintentionally produce modafinil that contained differing proportions of the D and 1 enantiomers?
Or is there basically only one way to make modafinil & it just so happens that it always turns out racemic?
Your in humble respectedness :)
Molly Be Damned.
poster:Molybdenum
thread:828224
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20080510/msgs/829301.html