Posted by SLS on May 11, 2008, at 12:28:07
In reply to Re: modafinil and armodafinil, how do they differ?, posted by undopaminergic on May 11, 2008, at 11:42:20
> It may be worth emphasising that if you're using modafinil, then you're using armodafinil, because modafinil is a mixture of one part armodafinil, and one part of its mirror image, S-modafinil.
It is interesting, though, that the clinical properties of Lexapro differ from that of Celexa. Lexapro tends to be more stimulating (except at the two-week mark, where it can produce transient fatigue). Some people respond robustly to one and not the other. There was some conjecture that the the r-isomer actually interferes with some of the clinical benefit from the s-isomer.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:828224
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20080510/msgs/828473.html