Posted by zeugma on April 20, 2006, at 8:38:06
In reply to Re: Drugs versus Psychotherapy - Backlash? » zeugma, posted by linkadge on April 20, 2006, at 8:09:44
> Ok so suppose the NET transporter lowers itself to compensate for a deficiancy of norepinephrine. Then still, the pathelogical condition is not an abnormality in NET but rather an abnormality in norepinephrine availabilty.
>
> Ie, I cant see how taking these depressed patients who's brains respond to low norepinephrine by decreasing NET, and exposing them to a drug that decreases it further, is going to remedy the situation, or make their brains function more like the contol brains.
>
> Linakdgeif the downregulation of NET in response to abnormality in NE neurotransmission is a result of a homeostatic process, then amplifying the brain's own response with a NET inhibitor would be a strengthening of this response (possibly enough to compensate for the dysregulation).
The key is that 'normal' neurotransmission may be achieved by different routes. The brain is a highly 'degenerate' system; there are numerous ways to get the same functional result (definition of degeneracy i am using: "In physics two or more physical states are said to be degenerate if they are both at the same energy level." -Wikipedia). The use of a NET inhibitor might bring noradrenergic function in line with that of an individual who was unmedicated but euthymic despite the very different configurations of NET/NE systems in each.
-z
poster:zeugma
thread:629584
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060417/msgs/635179.html