Posted by Lou Pilder on April 7, 2010, at 14:48:18
In reply to Re: Lou's reply-duzitmaddr? » Lou Pilder, posted by SLS on April 7, 2010, at 13:25:25
> > > Would the person's intent that gives another a mind-altering drug that has the potential to make the person want to kill themself, or be addicted to it, or cause them to be dehumanized, be what is needed to determine if sorcery is or is not practiced?
> >
> > I believe you will find the answer to this question in your own words as they are contained in a previous post: "If sorcery is the use of drugs to poison someone to make them die, or alter one's mind to make them controllable..."
> >
> > How do you define the term "mind-altering"? What must occur?
>
> Sorry. I guess you already answered that question as well. You suggest that it must render one controllable.
>
> I doubt that we will resolve our differences on the issues surrounding the use of psychiatric medicines to treat mental illness and how the bible may be interpreted regarding this practice. I don't think the bible prohibits the use of Prozac to treat depressive disorders.
>
>
> - ScottScott,
You wrote,[...I don't think the bible prohibits...].
I am unsure as to why you think that as to what you base your thiunking on. If you could post answers to the following, then I could have the opportunity to respond accordingly.
A. Do you base the above on that you have read and understand the entire bible?
B. Do you base the above on only the discussion we are having here?
C. Do you base the above on what someone else has told you?
D. Do you base the above on something else?
Lou
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:940243
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/faith/20100403/msgs/942652.html