Posted by Maximus on February 22, 2005, at 8:29:10
In reply to Lou's reply to Maximus-origlang » Maximus, posted by Lou Pilder on February 22, 2005, at 8:06:09
> You wrote,[...you can {only}...use it in its original language...].
> Could you clarify if you mean:
> A. The idiom in question can {only} be understood if it is written in the original language of the ancient Romans
> B. The idiom can {only} be understood in the French language
> C. Something else
> LouC. An idiom can only be fully understood in its original language.
Bonne journée!
poster:Maximus
thread:461232
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20050219/msgs/461698.html