Posted by Lou Pilder on February 22, 2005, at 8:06:09
In reply to Re: Lou's response to Maximus' post-difrnt-correction » Lou Pilder, posted by Maximus on February 22, 2005, at 0:22:35
Maximus,
You wrote,[...you can {only}...use it in its original language...].
Could you clarify if you mean:
A. The idiom in question can {only} be understood if it is written in the original language of the ancient Romans
B. The idiom can {only} be understood in the French language
C. Something else
Lou
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:461232
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20050219/msgs/461691.html