Posted by B2chica on November 29, 2007, at 15:16:49
ok, so if i'm on a dopamine antagonist (good) which helps but that same drug is also a 5HT2 antagonist (specifically a and c), doesn't that mean it blocks the serotonin receptor?
so i would think that it would make depression worse or create depression if there were none. but it isn't/doesn't.
can anyone explain why? am i not understanding the function of the 5ht2 receptor right or is it that those specific ones (a and c)?
the AD i'm supposed to start (but havne't is actually an ssri).
any explanation by guru's here is appreciated.
or helpful websites too.
thanks
b2c.
poster:B2chica
thread:797644
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071125/msgs/797644.html