Posted by stargazer2 on November 5, 2007, at 15:40:07
when it's incompletely treated it becomes more resistent to treatment. I have read this over and over in some articles but I cannot quote a source to verify it's veracity.
I have mentioned this to my pdoc since I have not had any successful treatment with meds that have really made me think this is medication that will work well over a long time.
I have little condfidence in any medication that can keep my depression under control "indefinate;y" or even for a few years. I think the longest I've gone in remission is two years.
Does anyone know of this theory of incomplete treatment making the depression more resistant the longer it is treated marginally?
I think alot of the periods I look at as being under control are actually periods where I am adding another med or changing a dosage of a med. I'm not really in remission since I haven't stopped adjusting the meds long enough to say "this is really working well".
Does anyone know what I'm asking...Stargazer
poster:stargazer2
thread:793454
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071104/msgs/793454.html