Posted by cornfedboy on May 29, 2007, at 9:33:12
In reply to Re: Effexor and dopamine, posted by linkadge on May 29, 2007, at 6:39:22
> Effexor will affect the monoamines in a fixed ratio that does not change with increaing the dose.
>
> What people mean when they say the norepinephrine effects "kick in" at higher doses, is that for some people higher doses are needed before a noradrenergic effect is felt.
>
> The drug will inhibit the norepinephrine reuptake pump dose dependandtly.
>
> Depending on your sensitivty to it, some can feel the noradrenergic effects at very low doses.
>
> The serotonergic effects do not stop at a certain dose either. The more drug, the more reuptake inhibition.
>
>
> I don't know what dose one would need for a pronounced dopaminergic effect. Probably a LOT, as it is a very weak inhibitor of dopamine reuptake.
>
> Linkadge
Linkadge, I'm by no means an expert o any of this and you may be right But: logically speaking, wouldn't the serotonergic effects have to level off at at some point. I mean, if 5-HT reuptake inhibition is (say) 95% at a dose of 150, it can hardly be 190% at a dose of 300. At most it can be 99%+ or something like that. Similarly with the SSRIs: if with a particular person, maximal reuptake inhibition is achieved at a dose of 40 mg of Prozac, adding another 40 mg isn't going to do much. The pharmokinetics aren't linear. Am I right about this?And do we have specifics on the very weak dopamine reuptake, both in vitro and in vivo?
Cornfedboy
poster:cornfedboy
thread:760068
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070524/msgs/760146.html