Posted by Squiggles on September 17, 2006, at 10:28:17
In reply to Re: the brain, posted by linkadge on September 17, 2006, at 10:18:41
> >In this context, if a person in a state of
> >suicidal depression is given drug X, and
> >the heavy mood of depression and despondence
> >lifts, and he/she feels at peace again, THEN
> >it is a fact that he was depressed before
> >drug X and not depressed after taking it.
>
> But, that doens't say a whole lot about the validity of assumtpion that a biochemical imballance is the cause of depression and not a conseqence.
>
> Lets say you've got your hand on a hot burner. An opiate might releive the pain, but you can't jump to the assumption that one now has an opiate deficiancy.
>
> LinkadgeIt seems to me self-evident, that there MUST
be a biochemical change in the brain, in the
examples you give. To put it bluntly, if
you do not have a brain, then neither an opiate
nor a drug, nor a stimulus in the environment
will have an effect on consciousness and
behaviour.Squiggles
poster:Squiggles
thread:686603
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060909/msgs/686773.html