Posted by Elizabeth on May 18, 2001, at 19:41:56
In reply to Re: Methadone, Propoxyphene and APAP --- oh my!, posted by dougb on May 17, 2001, at 17:23:27
> > OTOH, Percocet (oxycodone + APAP) is C-II (I assume that Percodan (oxycodone + aspirin) is too, but you never hear about that one anymore).
>
> ---Why is that? and am curious Elizabeth, how do you know so much about the pysco-farmacopia? are you dr/therapist/?I don't know why Percocet is C-II (the same as plain oxycodone). The "oxy-" synthetic opioids are supposed to be very euphoric, though (oxymorphone more than oxycodone), so maybe that's it.
I don't like to discuss personal stuff on public forums, but pharmacology and psychiatric medicine are interests of mine. I first became interested when I read _Listening to Prozac_. (That was more than a decade ago, when it first came out -- I was only about 12 or 13 years old, I think. Now I'm studying this and related material in school.)
> > So I hear. Did you see the movie _Pleasantville_? ...
>
> ---The ads made it look fun, but never got around to watching itI recommend it.
-elizabeth
poster:Elizabeth
thread:17065
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010515/msgs/63521.html