Shown: posts 1 to 4 of 4. This is the beginning of the thread.
Posted by Walfredo on February 3, 2010, at 15:10:04
As in, an "affinity" for a certain receptor? Does that mean it binds to that receptor? If so, what does binding to the receptor result in - a net increase or decrease effect that neurotransmitter's action?
For instance, I read where paroxetine has a weak affinity for the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. If true, what affect then does this have on acetylcholine? Does it decrease or increase its effect?
I'm kind of assuming it decreases the effect because I know paroxetine is supposedly anticholinergic but would like some confirmation/explanation if some of you guys could maybe explain it better?
Thanks in advance,
Alex
Posted by willey on February 3, 2010, at 22:06:43
In reply to What does it mean if a drug has an 'affinity'?, posted by Walfredo on February 3, 2010, at 15:10:04
Your right guy,in terms its used,i.e x drug has a weak affinity on gaba,meaning it basicaly has weak actions on gaba,so u had ur answer.
Posted by viper1431 on February 3, 2010, at 22:58:22
In reply to Re: What does it mean if a drug has an 'affinity'?, posted by willey on February 3, 2010, at 22:06:43
It can mean either increase or decrease i think. Affinity just means attraction, so it depends exactly what substance is being talked about. For eg a dopamine antagonist with an affinity for d2 receptors will be attracted to and block d2 receptors, such as antipsychotics.
Where as a dopamine agonist with an affinity for d2 will bind to d2 and effectivly increase it (or so the brain is fooled into thinking), such as the case in parkison drugs.
Posted by desolationrower on February 7, 2010, at 11:28:52
In reply to Re: What does it mean if a drug has an 'affinity'?, posted by viper1431 on February 3, 2010, at 22:58:22
it just means it will bind to the receptor, whether it is an agonist(triggers the postsynaptic function) or antagonist (doesn't) or is reverse agonist (reduce3s function) is not specified
-d/r
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