Posted by alexandra_k on December 22, 2004, at 17:42:28
In reply to Re: 1.3, posted by alexandra_k on December 21, 2004, at 17:27:01
> But then what Davies et al want to say is that not EVERYONE with a global loss of affective response develops the Cotard delusion.
So maybe some people don't express their experience, while others do. Can we really hope to come up with necessary and sufficient conditions for someone saying a delusional utterance? I mean, can we really come up with necessary and sufficient conditions for someone saying a non-delusional utterance (such as 'please pass the salt'? Perhaps yes, but the necessary and sufficient conditions would have to be very abstract indeed...
> They also want to say that they should say it is AS IF they have died, not that they HAVE died.When you are expressing your experience in other contexts you don't say it is 'as if'. You don't say 'the weather is as if it is hot'. 'It is as if there is a red patch in front of me'. That would be a very odd thing to say indeed! Why should expressing delusional anomalous experience be any different?
poster:alexandra_k
thread:432064
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/write/20041210/msgs/433031.html