Posted by Craig on March 25, 2001, at 1:38:13
In reply to Re: a quick question on dissociation » judy1, posted by Craig on March 24, 2001, at 1:44:45
Judy, since this was the only post from 3/24 that was archived, you probably missed it. I know how hard it is to sift through all the posts when the "yellow tags" don't show up anymore, so here it is. My apologies if you've already read it.
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Just because someone dissociates, it doesn't mean that they are psychotic. I believe that the nurse is incorrect. I have a dissociative disorder and I'm not psychotic. Even psychiatrists agree about me about that.
About a year or two ago, I attended a meeting about atypical antipsychotics where the speaker was a pharmacist with a doctorate who works at a highly rated hospital nearby. After her presentation, a pharmacist in the audience asked her about atypical antipsychotics such as Zyprexa and Risperdal beginning to be prescribed for bipolar disorder and asked her to comment on this new practice. I couldn't believe it when she insisted, despite protests from other members of the audience, that these drugs were *only* given to psychotic patients!! As Dr. Bob says, "Don't necessarily believe everything you hear."
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> Is it considered a psychotic symptom? Just curious, because for the first time today I heard a psychiatric nurse refer to it as that. Thank you- judy
poster:Craig
thread:5246
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/social/20010324/msgs/5262.html