Posted by Craig on March 24, 2001, at 1:44:45
In reply to a quick question on dissociation, posted by judy1 on March 23, 2001, at 15:42:16
Just because someone dissociates, it doesn't mean that they are psychotic. I believe that the nurse is incorrect. I have a dissociative disorder and I'm not psychotic. Even psychiatrists agree about me about that.
About a year or two ago, I attended a meeting about atypical antipsychotics where the speaker was a pharmacist with a doctorate who works at a highly rated hospital nearby. After her presentation, a pharmacist in the audience asked her about atypical antipsychotics such as Zyprexa and Risperdal beginning to be prescribed for bipolar disorder and asked her to comment on this new practice. I couldn't believe it when she insisted, despite protests from other members of the audience, that these drugs were *only* given to psychotic patients!! As Dr. Bob says, "Don't necessarily believe everything you hear."
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> Is it considered a psychotic symptom? Just curious, because for the first time today I heard a psychiatric nurse refer to it as that. Thank you- judy
poster:Craig
thread:5246
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/social/20010209/msgs/5253.html