Posted by Aphrodite on March 5, 2005, at 21:04:46
I have not given written or verbal permission for my T to talk to my pdoc (or anyone else for that matter). My pdoc has permission to communicate with my PCP for med reasons only but not with my T.
Is there some reason that my T can supercede this? He kinda sorta gently intimated that there are circumstances in which he could communicate with my pdoc.
Anyone know the rules? (Yeah, I'm super-paranoid.)
poster:Aphrodite
thread:467162
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20050305/msgs/467162.html