Posted by so on July 11, 2005, at 12:14:29
There is one thing that has confounded me about this Do Not Post To Me provision since I first understood it to be an option. I recognized it merely as a way to disengage, but later was show evidence that a DNP request implies a person might feel they are being harassed. On the occassions I recall using the request, I intended it only as a way to disengage. It seemed to me that to suggest someone was harassing me could lead them to feel accused.
How is it one can impose a request intended to stop harassment without accusing someone of harassing them? Does it seem to anyone else to invite a potential defacto allegation if the request only implies a perception of harassment? On the other hand, if the request only implies an arbitrary desire to disengage (maybe because one is too busy to reply at length to lengthy posts), it can be used without insinuating any perception at all.
poster:so
thread:526165
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20050628/msgs/526165.html