Posted by Christ_empowered on February 22, 2019, at 18:28:55
it seems to usually be higher in psychotic disorders than in any flavor bipolar I or severe depression. why do you think? I mean...high(er) doses can cause and exacerbate "negative symptoms," so it just seems...unfair. :-(
I"d like to slowly lower my own "atypical" intake. the new prescriber person seemed OK with it...as long as I take some anti-seizure drugs. blah. 6 of one, 1/2 dozen of the other? what do you think would be safer over the long haul...20/abilify or 10-15/abilify and I"m guessing trileptal? is there even a difference?and...for those of you who are deep in the psych research...what about tardive psychosis? that's one reason I"m willing to consider an anti-seizure drug. lower neuroleptic dose, plus some indication that the anti-seizure drug does...something...to keep the neuroleptic from making things worse. always a good thing.
ok. thanks, y'all. :-)
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1103342
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20190206/msgs/1103342.html