Posted by SLS on November 3, 2017, at 22:02:17
In reply to Re: I have only been psychotic on Nardil. Never withou » SLS, posted by linkadge on November 3, 2017, at 18:21:22
> Hi SLS,
>
> To me (and I'm no doctor as well) schizoaffective would need the symptoms to predate treatment with a particular drug.I guess that depends on whether or not you believe that antidepressants can uncover otherwise occult bipolar disorder. In my layman way of thinking, if antidepressants can indeed uncover bipolar disorder, then any schizoid psychosis that follows would indicate something other than uncomplicated bipolar disorder. It would be interesting to talk to a few researchers about this. I am absolutely sure that not all occurrences of mania and psychosis that appear as the result of exposure to chemical substances are evidence of mental illness. I have seen prednisone do this to an elderly woman who had no history of mental illness. She experienced visual and auditory hallucinations while the drug was being administered in the hospital. Fortunately, the psychosis resolved immediately upon the discontinuation of the drug.
- ScottSome see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.- George Bernard Shaw
poster:SLS
thread:1095680
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20161215/msgs/1095725.html