Posted by doxogenic boy on November 2, 2013, at 9:14:04
In reply to Re: Irving Kirsch, placebos and antidepressants, posted by babbler20 on October 30, 2013, at 21:57:56
> > I have read earlier in Scientific American Mind that the reason for the high placebo responses in drug studies for antidepressants in the United States, is that some of/lots of patients in the studies weren't depressed in the first place. (I think they got money for participating in the studies.) Therefore the placebo response looks higher than it is. What do you think about this?
> Doxogenic,
>
> I actually hadn't considered the fact that many of the patients that were given the placebo weren't depressed. This is an excellent point !Yes, I think the pharmaceutical companies will take this into consideration in future trials/research, because they obviously lose money when they get too high placebo responses. So maybe the Kirsch/placebo debate took place on false premises?
Here is an overview of that debate:
http://web.archive.org/web/19990128083252/http://journals.apa.org/prevention/
http://www.plosmedicine.org/article/info%3Adoi%2F10.1371%2Fjournal.pmed.0050045
http://ebmh.bmj.com/content/11/3/66.full
- doxogenic
Earlier TRD/anxiety
300 mg tianeptine, 6 X 50 mg successfully since Oct 2009
20 mcg liothyronine
40 mg escitalopram
100 mg trimipramine
50 mg agomelatine
600 mg quetiapine
poster:doxogenic boy
thread:1052457
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20131025/msgs/1053588.html