Posted by PrettyLady on February 28, 2013, at 19:57:17
So I'm reading up on how antipsychotics work and it looks to me like they all block the four dopamine pathways (reduce dopaminergic neurotransmission). But atypical antipsychotic also block serotonin. I also understand that SSRI antidepressants increase serotonergic activity by stopping the reuptake of serotonin, and some have dopaminergic activity as well. It seems to me that this means that they have the opposite effect. One promotes activity, and one blocks it. So why are these sometimes prescribed together? I'm asking because I am taking Zoloft, and did better on Zoloft and Seroquel (atypical antipsychotic) at the same time. How can this be?
p.s. I'm also coming to understand that antagonism means to block, and agonism means to support. Is that correct?
poster:PrettyLady
thread:1039120
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20130222/msgs/1039120.html