Posted by Christ_empowered on November 21, 2010, at 8:02:23
In reply to New technique..combine 2 antipsychotics..??, posted by Jay_Clockwork_Angels on November 20, 2010, at 19:29:12
I don't know if this is really a new thing. I mean, using atypicals+atypicals or atypicals+conventional neuroleptics is probably new, but mixing neuroleptics has been done for a long time...haldol+thorazine, neulactil+whatever, so on and perphenazine+whatever.
I read somewhere that antipsychotic polypharmacy seems to result in increased costs and more side effects. I wish I could link to that article, but I didn't bookmark it or anything. That said...it seems to me (as a non-professional) that careful use of 2 atypicals, especially if one is low-dosed and/or just used PRN, might be useful...like when people have zyprexa or something as a "rescue med" for freak-outs.
Do you have any info on why they do it so often in other countries? Are the people on antipsychotics there regarded as more severe cases than the people here? Do they not use benzos as much?
Interesting post.
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:970864
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20101117/msgs/970898.html