Posted by Atalanta on April 21, 2010, at 12:50:14
I have a patient with severe, treatment-resistant depression. She states that she has only been successfully treated with Nardil prior to a formulation change which was, I believe, an excipient change? Does anyone have experience with this? Has anyone been able to achieve similar anti-depressant success with the Nardil but at a higher dosage?
poster:Atalanta
thread:944352
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20100416/msgs/944352.html