Posted by Larry Hoover on April 6, 2009, at 9:41:56
In reply to Re: How are reuptake ratios expressed?, posted by desolationrower on April 6, 2009, at 8:55:41
Excellent point about the sigmoid function, d/r.
An excellent example of that is the pain-reduction vs. psychoactive response to opiates. In treating my pain, I could take substantial doses of oxycodone and have no psychoactive effect whatsoever. My pain wouldn't go to zero, but it became tolerable. If I tried to obtain zero pain, I would be hugely high. Sometimes, in hindsight, I did take too much, but I assessed that via the psychoactive effect. If I got a buzz, I took too much drug. The pain receptors have a higher affinity for the opiates than do the buzz ones, and I wanted to keep the latter unoccupied. That helped me titrate my dose over time. In fact, the first indication that my baseline pain was diminishing was that my dose was dropping. I was still facing severe pain, but I had an objective measure of the need for treatment.
Lar
poster:Larry Hoover
thread:888069
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090330/msgs/888955.html