Posted by Ramin on March 26, 2008, at 17:45:51
Ok, I'm a bit confused. If a agonism of 5HT1A receptors is a primary mechanism that helps with symptoms of depression and anxiety, then how is it that seroquel doesn't have some depression exacerbating properties.
After all, in addition to antagonizing various receptors, it also antagonizes 5HT1A.
Could someone please explain this all to me?
I got really confused after seeing this response to a different thread:
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20080221/msgs/813925.html
poster:Ramin
thread:820032
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20080316/msgs/820032.html