Posted by clipper40 on November 14, 2007, at 3:45:39
In reply to Re: Why aren't stimulants considered dopamine agonists » clipper40, posted by kaleidoscope on November 13, 2007, at 14:31:57
> Stimulants such as Adderall are sometimes referred to as being indirect dopamine agonists because the drug molecule does not stimulate dopamine receptors directly, it stimulates them indirectly via in increase in synaptic dopamine availability. Stimulants also have numerous other actions involving other neurotransmitters.
>
> True dopamine agonists such as Requip directly stimulate dopamine receptors ie. the drug molecule actually binds to dopamine receptors and stimulates them. This does not happen with the stimulants.
Ok, I understand. In the case of stimulants, does this apply to norepinephrine as well? Can you explain how stimulants indirectly force the release of more neurotransmitter? (If it's way too complicated, then don't bother.) Thanks.
poster:clipper40
thread:794756
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