Posted by B2chica on November 13, 2007, at 8:03:13
In reply to Re: Why aren't stimulants considered dopamine agonists, posted by mav27 on November 13, 2007, at 6:24:30
sorry but i need some clarification. i understand that drug agonists and antagonists are binders, but i thought that an aganist binds to the receptor and infact stimulates the receptor (which would increase dopamine).an antagonist is a binder but doesn't stimulate the receptor (and this is where i am confusing with what you said) cuz i thought its the antagonist that sort of is a "fake" dopamine so to speak that attaches and 'tricks' the receptor into thinking it's what it is the dopamine....so that it doensn't accept more. (thus resulting in less dopamine activity)
could someone clarify for me?
curiously
b2c.
poster:B2chica
thread:794756
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071104/msgs/794792.html