Posted by Squiggles on July 4, 2006, at 7:40:07
In reply to Re: QUESTION..2 mgs. Ativan is equal to?? » Squiggles, posted by MARTY on July 3, 2006, at 23:12:21
> > From benzo.org.uk:
> > also known as Lorazepam, the equivalence is
> >
> > 1-2Ativan : 0.5Klonopin
>
> > http://benzo.org.uk/ (Equivalence Table).
> > Squiggles
>
> Nice equivalence table, bad table cell ;)
>
> Take a look again on the table and you'll see that 1 mg (NOT 1 - 2 mg) of Lorazepam (Ativan) is equivalent to 0.5 mg of Clonazepam (Klonopin).
>
> See ya around
> Marty
>
I see 1-2 with a footnote on
alternative approximations; i'm
not sure how you interpret that as
1;Squiggles
poster:Squiggles
thread:662997
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060701/msgs/663930.html