Posted by mogger on April 30, 2005, at 1:53:55
Hello,
I am wondering why do anti-psychotics are supposed to have anti-depressant effects when they block certain neuro transmitters? I thought that drugs like prozaq and zoloft actually inhibit these neuro transmitters from being destroyed and they are supposed to be THE ANTIDEPRESSANTS? I mention seroquel in particular as I hear it has anti-depressant effects. I am currently on zyprexa. I just don't get it when I also hear people say that anti-psychotics augment anti-depressants. Can anyone help explain this to me? Many thanks,
mogger
poster:mogger
thread:491782
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050428/msgs/491782.html