Posted by linkadge on September 11, 2004, at 15:38:44
How is it that two, totally opposite mechanisms of a drug can provide antidepressant properties. Drugs like modafanil cause a release of glutamate and have antidepressant properties. On the other hand, drugs like riluzole reduce glutamate activity and have antidepressant properties.
I'm confused
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:389725
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040909/msgs/389725.html