Posted by Ritch on June 13, 2003, at 23:55:39
In reply to Provigil Q. Dark Lord Mitch et al, posted by Geezer on June 13, 2003, at 22:19:05
>...In a preclinical model, the wakfulness induced by amphetamine, but not modafinil, is antagonized by the dopamine receptor antagonist haloperidol."
>
> Question: Does this mean Provigil is a dopamine antagonist? I don't understand the "haloperidol" part. I do understand amphetamine is both a dopamine agonist and antagonist with a similar adrenergic action.
No, Provigil doesn't appear to be a dopamine antagonist (based on that info-also remember that is a "preclinical model" - which means it may be inaccurate), what it intends to convey is.. if you give somebody amphetamine (which *does* act at the D2 receptor as an agonist) and they experience alertness from it-and then you administer haloperidol (Haldol-a known and very potent D2 *receptor* antagonist) it *will* interfere with the alertness that is provoked by the administration of amphetamine-but ooops that would be "clinical". Provigil's mechanism *supposedly* only works to block the reuptake of dopamine in the synapse and doesn't work on the DA receptor directly either as an antagonist or agonist. So someone who is experiencing increased alertness from Provigil shouldn't (according to this statement) find Provigil's effect on alertness subdued by administering haloperidol. Why didn't they express the results of a "clinical" study with subjects..??> I am Bipolar II taking 250mg of Lamictal, Prozac 15mg. and 1.5 Klonopin (similar to the cocktail employed by "Colin the Crazy"-wink). My problem - I have taken 200mg. in a single dose, 200mg. devided dose, 400mg. single dose and devided doses of 200mg. each. The results are always the same - I feel great for 4 hours then hit a very disphoric, rebound depression. There is no mania just a very bad flu like feeling that requires a nap and 0.5 of Klonopin to correct the situation.
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> Since plazma concentrations are reached at "2 - 4 hours" could I be tripping the switch for a mood change at the 4 hour time range? What would you think of trying 50mg. single dose for a week (steady state reached in 2-4 days) then going to 100mg if no problems occur. I have to do something about the atypical depression and higher doses of Lamictal don't seem to help.
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> Thanks,
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> GeezerI know they are in Phase II with this med for bipolar depression. If you are getting dysphoria with it-I'm worried about its utility. It might be possible to take smaller doses more frequently as an experiment. What about 50mg 4x daily? If you want to experiment...
poster:Ritch
thread:233841
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030609/msgs/233871.html