Posted by Geezer on June 13, 2003, at 22:19:05
The following is direct from the package insert that comes with Provigil:
"Modafinil is not a direct-or indirect-acting dopamine receptor agonist and is inactive in several in vivo preclinical models capable of detecting enhanced dopaminergic activity. In Vitro, modafinil binds to the dopamine reuptake site and causes an increase in extracellular dopamine, but no increase in dopamine release. In a preclinical model, the wakfulness induced by amphetamine, but not modafinil, is antagonized by the dopamine receptor antagonist haloperidol."Question: Does this mean Provigil is a dopamine antagonist? I don't understand the "haloperidol" part. I do understand amphetamine is both a dopamine agonist and antagonist with a similar adrenergic action.
I am Bipolar II taking 250mg of Lamictal, Prozac 15mg. and 1.5 Klonopin (similar to the cocktail employed by "Colin the Crazy"-wink). My problem - I have taken 200mg. in a single dose, 200mg. devided dose, 400mg. single dose and devided doses of 200mg. each. The results are always the same - I feel great for 4 hours then hit a very disphoric, rebound depression. There is no mania just a very bad flu like feeling that requires a nap and 0.5 of Klonopin to correct the situation.
Since plazma concentrations are reached at "2 - 4 hours" could I be tripping the switch for a mood change at the 4 hour time range? What would you think of trying 50mg. single dose for a week (steady state reached in 2-4 days) then going to 100mg if no problems occur. I have to do something about the atypical depression and higher doses of Lamictal don't seem to help.
Thanks,
Geezer
poster:Geezer
thread:233841
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030609/msgs/233841.html