Posted by Ilene on March 10, 2003, at 21:26:52
In reply to Re: For Dr. Bowden: More Q's on BP II, posted by cybercafe on March 10, 2003, at 0:36:39
> >
> > I always thought I had atypical unipolar depression. A few months ago I found some articles on the internet about BPII (which I had never heard of) and the confused taxonomy of bipolar disorders. I brought them in to my psychiatrist, but neither of us could decide whether I was bipolar or not. We had been discussing augmenting ADs with a mood stabilizer anyway. It was really a process of trial and error.
> >
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> > So I wonder--since BPII is misdiagnosed so often, shouldn't every psychiatrist try to differentiate unipolar vs. bipolar right away?
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> > How do *you* diagnose BPII? Would "responds to mood stabilizer" equate to "is bipolar"? Is it even meaningful once you are at the point of truly refractory depression, or do you continue experimenting with different meds?> > --I.
> >
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> could you try the DSM or Kaplan and Saddock?DSM is not helpful. It doesn't describe all of the variations of BPII, according to some authors. Kaplan and Saddock? I'd either have to leave the house or spend some serious money. I'm not ready to do either.
--I.
poster:Ilene
thread:205791
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030310/msgs/207869.html