Posted by Ilene on March 10, 2003, at 10:26:16
In reply to Bowden - Unipolar with drug-induced mania or BP?, posted by SLS on March 10, 2003, at 7:21:16
> Dear Dr. Bowden,
>
> I have been suffering from an unremitting severe anergic depression for over 25 years (since age 17). However, several antidepressants have induced psychotic manic mixed states that have twice required hospitalization. In addition, for two years I exhibited a remarkable 11-day ultra-rapid cycle that did not deviate by as much as 24 hours: 8 days depression / 3 days euthymia (not hypomanic).
>
> My questions:
>
> 1. If the only instances of mania are associated with medication, is this necessarily a presentation of bipolar illness?
>
> 2. Is there to be a DSM V classification to describe this?
>
> 3. What treatment strategies are best pursued to treat this sort of thing?
>
>
> Thank you.
>
>
> - Scott
>
>
Try a search for "bipolar III" using Google. Use the quotation marks! Bipolar III is one term for medication-induced mania. So IMHO you are bipolar. If I were you I'd never take another AD!I haven't found the DSM-!V descriptions very helpful either. This might interest you. It explains the logic behind DSM IV:
The DSM-IV Classification and Psychopharmacology
http://www.acnp.org/g4/GN401000082/Default.htmThis is a concise overview of treatments for BP written by an undergraduate(!) at the University of Colorado. I couldn't find a date, but it seems to be fairly current. It is both informative and relatively jargon-free. and has links to other sites:
http://dubinserver.colorado.edu/prj/ane/1.html
--I.
poster:Ilene
thread:205791
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030310/msgs/207711.html