Posted by JohnX2 on April 5, 2002, at 15:51:32
In reply to How can 1/2 life be SAME for DIFF concentrations?, posted by Janelle on April 5, 2002, at 14:45:06
> How can the number of half lives required to eliminate a drug (5-7 half lives and it's gone from body) be the SAME for DIFFERENT concentrations of the drug?
>
> Meaning, wouldn't a drug with a 100 mg/l concentration have fewer half-lives than one with say 350 mg/l concentration?
>
> I don't get this! Please help! Thanks!Its not *exactly* the same, but its *really miniscule* after many half lifes relative to the base dose, if you use a really simplistic model of exponential 1/2 life decay.
I'll take your example into account:
time ----dose---------
t1 350.0 100.0
t2 175.0 50.0
t3 87.5 25.0
t4 43.7 12.5
t5 21.8 6.2
t6 10.9 3.1
t7 5.4 1.5
t8 2.7 0.8John
poster:JohnX2
thread:101843
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020402/msgs/102015.html