Posted by Elizabeth on September 12, 2001, at 13:34:12
In reply to Re: DXM in Ecstasy » Elizabeth, posted by MB on September 12, 2001, at 13:07:50
> > AFAIK, it does not have any "psychotomimetic" effects. "Psychotomimetic" is a word that's been misused a lot to describe hallucinogenic or psychedelic drugs. I think the appropriate term for drugs like DXM and ketamine would be "dissociative."
>
> Could we say that amphetamine in high doses is "psychotomimetic" because it induces "psychosis"?Yes. A psychosis can be induced by amphetamine overdose, which very closely resembles what's become known as "schizophrenia, paranoid type."
> I like to use the word "psychotomimetic" because it makes me feel smart (heh heh heh...)
< g >
> but I guess I should only use it when refering to a drug that actual induces psychosis. If someone has latent psychosis, and a drug causes it to manifest, can we say that that drug was psychotomimetic for that person?
I suppose. I would just say that it triggered an episode -- the drug effect isn't believed to be the ultimate cause of psychosis, the predisposition is.
-elizabeth
poster:Elizabeth
thread:78291
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010907/msgs/78660.html