Posted by pellmell on July 30, 2001, at 11:44:08
You've said more than a few times recently that Prozac's way different from the other drugs in its class, and maybe shouldn't even be grouped with the rest of the SSRIs. I was wondering if you (or anyone else) could explain, in as much detail as you can (I think I've got a pretty good understanding of the current thinking in psychopharm for a layperson) why you think that. I'm curious, although I don't mean to imply that I disagree.
Thanks, and I look forward to the discussion.
-pm
poster:pellmell
thread:72515
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010725/msgs/72515.html