Posted by Ted R on February 11, 2001, at 10:38:34
> I am familiar with the suggested mechanism on how lamictal stabilizes seizure activity, by possible inhibition of sodium channnels, and a probable modulating effect on release of glutamate and a couple other excitatory amino acids. My question is though, what is it that accounts for lamictal's AD effect? How does lamictal effect Serotonin, Norepinephrine, and Dopamine. Would be interested in hearing from anybody on this area, as I started the drug a couple of weeks ago. I can't seem to locate any description of a medical hypothesis, in regards to the drug's antidepressant effect...Thanks...Ted
poster:Ted R
thread:53739
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010131/msgs/53739.html