Posted by goodegg on January 16, 2005, at 11:50:35
There's someone in my life I care alot about who uses a banzo (valium) and a narcotic (codiene). She claims she keeps her usage to only two days per week of each substance. She said that keeping the two days of each together is better than days off in between because they remain active in the blood stream for at least two days since the last usage.
Two related questions,First: She claims that using valium two days in a row followed by two days of codeine gives her a lower potential for addiction to either (excluding any other factors, such as personality tendencies, dosages, etc.).
The question is this. I know they both act on the central nervous system, but do they target/affect the same receptors and/or neurotransmitters? In other words, would using two days of a benzo followed by two days of a narcotic (or vica versa) be similar, in terms of increasing tolerance of either, as using four days of only the benzo in a row or only four days of the narcotic in a row (as I am suspecting)?Second: She also claims that (given the above as a constant, and exluding any other factors) the dosage consumed (lower or greater amounts) for any of the two days for either substances does not matter in terms of potential for addiction as long as she does not increase the number of days of usage (which I am doubting). Would this be accurate?
To the best of your awareness, are there any innacuracies in her beliefs or errors in her logic? I'd like her at least to be well informed about what she's doing.
poster:goodegg
thread:442750
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/subs/20041128/msgs/442750.html