Posted by Jost on August 20, 2006, at 12:22:05
In reply to Re: historic CSA *trigger* » harrisonpope, posted by Estella on August 20, 2006, at 1:11:20
The term "schizophrenia" isn't in the literature because it was invented in the 19th c. This doesn't mean that clusters of symptoms, or behaviors, later categorized as schizophrenia weren't mentioned.
These things may have been conceptualized differently, and one can argue about whether better or worse, but it's harder to argue that what we would call "madness" did not exist.
Even Foucault would have acknowledged that various manifestations later called madness existed--
Jost
poster:Jost
thread:629255
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20060808/msgs/678449.html