Posted by Dinah on June 28, 2006, at 8:09:07
In reply to Continuing discussion of PD's--happyflower, posted by gardenergirl on June 27, 2006, at 22:05:27
It's terribly annoying to me that the DSM doesn't include affective instability, or mood reactivity, or whatever, as an Axis I disorder. I find it *very* hard to believe that it isn't a biological disorder as much as depression or bipolar or cyclothymia.
I have migraines and IBS and, yes, affective instability. I'm no brain expert, but from what I've read and from what my neurologist told me, they're all likely the result of cascades of neurochemicals that aren't well regulated. Isn't it possible that some people just have an ineffective neurochemical moderating system? That in response to relatively low levels of stimulation they totally overreact? So that flickering lights will bring on a migraine, or anxiety will send me rushing to the bathroom, or the slightest hint of abandonment will have me reacting as if someone just left me for good?
I know that's unscientific. But it annoys me no end that cyclothymia is the closest Axis I diagnosis, and it's just not sufficient.
I think if it were understood to be a biological problem, it would help a lot with the negative judgements.
poster:Dinah
thread:662028
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20060623/msgs/662151.html