Posted by Tamar on May 11, 2005, at 16:02:27
In reply to Re: did I neglect to mention, posted by sunny10 on May 11, 2005, at 15:36:41
> that I have been dx'd- about 2 yrs ago???
>
> I COULD have the records TRANSFERRED, but she would prefer that I go to this particualr pdoc that she likes to work with and trusts...
>
> so the insurance covering the T is not an issue in terms of having a diagnosis for billing purposes...there already IS one that can be transferred.
>
> Does this change anyone's response?
>
> (sorry, I thought that when I mentioned earlier pdocs and meds that it would be clear that I have proir dx, but I am feeling so confused that the confusion no doubt made it into my posted question..... sorry again....)Do you have a gut feeling that she is not being entirely straight about this? If so, you should listen to it.
I understand that professionals can have good relationships and rely on the judgement of people they particularly trust, but it shouldn't be a requirement that you spend money to see her pdoc pal when you could get the records transferred.
So yes, it does make a difference to my response. If I were in your shoes, I'd be a bit skeptical. Unless you think there's any possibility that your diagnosis could have changed in the last two years.
But I also have to admit that I really don't know how the pdoc system works, so maybe I'm speaking out of turn...
Tamar
poster:Tamar
thread:496462
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20050504/msgs/496514.html