Posted by Dinah on January 31, 2004, at 9:26:51
In reply to My Session, posted by Elle2021 on January 30, 2004, at 22:53:51
Is it possible that he meant that he would continue to see you for meds? That he wasn't trying to get rid of you, he just wanted to limit his practice to meds?
I've been picking up hints from what you've said that this is what he's been aiming for for a long time, and it probably doesn't have a thing to do with you. More and more MD's are limiting their practice to psychopharmacology. It's less taxing emotionally, and the monetary rewards are far greater. My pdoc charges $80 for what amounts to 10 minutes. There is no way he could get that amount for therapy.
I have thought that he hasn't been effective or empathetic at telling you this. Instead of telling you outright he wants to change his treatment to psychopharmacology, it seems he's been dropping hints that have the (justifiable) effect of hurting your feelings.
I think he could have handled this far better, but is it possible that what I'm saying has some validity? Is it possible that while it might feel like an abandonment personal to you, it's just really a decision based on what he wants his practice to be?
poster:Dinah
thread:307576
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20040131/msgs/307660.html