Posted by Dinah on January 11, 2004, at 11:46:53
My therapist, who is a LMFT or whatever (I might be missing a few letters), has told me that he thinks I have a couple of things that I've never been diagnosed with by a psychologist or psychiatrist. This may be because (and this has proven true in the past) my therapist is rather loose in his interpretation of DSM IV criteria. Or it may be because he knows me better than anyone else.
When he's said something along those lines, I've replied "But I've never been diagnosed as xxx or yyy" and he agrees.
So if anyone asks, do I have to admit these as diagnoses? He's never written it down or anything. And sometimes he just uses the word "traits", rather than the formal diagnosis. One, for example, is borderline personality disorder. My various pdocs have ruled that one out, because honestly I only really show that aspect of myself to my therapist. You'd never guess it from my life or social history, and it didn't show up on my personality testing. Everyone else sees me on the schizoid/schizotypal cluster.
While I don't personally think there is anything wrong with the diagnosis, and in fact think it should be listed as a mood disorder rather than as a personality disorder, I must confess that I am reluctant to have to declare it because there is still, unfortunately, prejudice out there.
Ditto with the other suggestion he has.
poster:Dinah
thread:299404
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20040110/msgs/299404.html