Posted by Dinah on October 29, 2002, at 16:57:35
My pdoc has a very clear boundaries about the separation of therapeutic issues and psychopharmacology. In other words, he's only interested in medication issues, symptoms, and side effects, and effectiveness of medication. He might want to hear if I've had increased suicidal ideation, if I've been having trouble sleeping, or if I've had increased anxiety. But other than things like that, he just questions me about my meds. And I am perfectly ok with that. In fact he's refreshing to me after my last overintrusive pdoc. Plus, I like the meds he has me on.
I asked my therapist today for his view of whether I'm doing worse, since that's sometimes sort of hard to judge for myself. And I discovered that he doesn't like the lack of communication with my pdoc. He feels that at the very least, I should be completely honest with my pdoc about everything, including non physiological purely psychological problems. I on the other hand think that not only would my pdoc not be interested, but I also think it's none of his business. What I say in therapy should remain in therapy.
Is it general practice for the therapist to be in contact with the psychopharmacologist? My therapist seems to think that the lack of communication is unusual. And is it necessary for the pychopharmacologist to know everything?
My last pdoc was in contact with my therapist, and I think it turned out poorly. That may be influencing my thoughts on the subject.
poster:Dinah
thread:1425
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20020829/msgs/1425.html