Posted by evenintherain on March 13, 2010, at 23:53:08 [reposted on March 14, 2010, at 1:10:21 | original URL]
In reply to Re: For PURE Dopamine effect without Noradrenaline ?, posted by Phillipa on March 13, 2010, at 12:15:59
i've been wondering how cocaine works. in high school biology we were taught it was a dopamine re-uptake inhibitor, but i don't trust much of what i learned about drugs in high school.
i am wondering because i have tried cocaine on several occasions and it doesn't work for me (has little to no effect. not a case of poor quality drugs either) and i've never heard of this happening to anyone else. i was assuming it meant i was dopamine-deficient. was thinking it might help me figure out an AD that would work for me (haven't really found one that does much yet).
anyone have any ideas about this?
poster:evenintherain
thread:939473
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20100223/msgs/939479.html